A. The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
B. Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
C. A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
D. The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.
B. Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
C. A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
D. The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.
ANS: B
A. The three configurable violation modes all log violations
via SNMP.
B. Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
C. The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
D. After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
E. If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
B. Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
C. The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
D. After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
E. If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
ANS: B,D
A. Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
B. Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
C. Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
D. Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.
B. Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
C. Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
D. Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.
ANS: A
What
are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address
flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks?
A. Enable CDP on the switch.
B. Change passwords regularly.
C. Turn off unnecessary services.
D. Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
E. Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.
B. Change passwords regularly.
C. Turn off unnecessary services.
D. Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
E. Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.
ANS: B,C
Which
statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only”
issued on a switch?
A. The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
B. The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
C. The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be displayed.
D. The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.
B. The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
C. The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be displayed.
D. The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.
ANS: B
Refer
to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config
command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from
the output shown?
A. The enable password is encrypted by default.
B. An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
C. Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
D. This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.
B. An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
C. Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
D. This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.
ANS: C
A. The enable secret password command stores the configured
password in plain text.
B. The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
C. The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
D. The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password. Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.
B. The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
C. The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
D. The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password. Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.
ANS: B,C
To
secure the console port with the password “cisco” to deny access to the console
port by specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration
mode by supplying the required password to configure the privilege exec
password that will be used for remote access problem?
A. incorrect vty lines configured
B. incompatible Secure Shell version
C. incorrect default gateway address
D. vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet
B. incompatible Secure Shell version
C. incorrect default gateway address
D. vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet
ANS: D
If
a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a
switch, what will be the result? | CCNA
A. Switch1(config-line)# line console 0
B. Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
C. Switch1(config-line)# login
B. Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
C. Switch1(config-line)# login
ANS: A
A. DRAM
B. NVRAM
C. ROM
D. startup-config.text
B. NVRAM
C. ROM
D. startup-config.text
ANS: B
A
network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several
parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator
cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get
the parameter information? append ?
A. to the last parameter
B. append a space and then ? to the last parameter
C. use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list.
D. use the Tab key to show which options are available
B. append a space and then ? to the last parameter
C. use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list.
D. use the Tab key to show which options are available
ANS: B
A. Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
B. Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
C. Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
D. Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
E. Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.
B. Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
C. Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
D. Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
E. Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.
ANS: B,E
When
a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the
switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the
incoming frame? | CCNA
A. The switch will request that the sending node resend the
frame.
B. The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
C. The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
D. The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.
B. The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
C. The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
D. The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.
ANS: C
Refer
to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the
switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the
frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
A. workstation C
B. workstations B and C
C. workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
D. workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router
B. workstations B and C
C. workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
D. workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router
ANS: A
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 7
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 7
ANS: B
Refer
to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for
full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of
this link? | CCNA
A. No collisions will occur on this link.
B. Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
C. The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
D. The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
B. Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
C. The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
D. The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
ANS: A
Which
command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters,
such as the hostname and password? | CCNA
A. user EXEC mode
B. privileged EXEC mode
C. global configuration mode
D. interface configuration mode
B. privileged EXEC mode
C. global configuration mode
D. interface configuration mode
ANS: C
When
a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to
transmit respond after the backoff period has expired? | CCNA
A. The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
B. The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
C. The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
D. The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
B. The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
C. The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
D. The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
ANS: A
Refer
to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if
the MAC address table of SW1 is empty? | CCNA
A. SW1 drops the frame.
B. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
C. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
D. SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.
B. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
C. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
D. SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.
ANS: B
What
header address information does a router change in the information it receives
from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out
another interface? | CCNA
A. only the Layer 2 source address
B. only the Layer 2 destination address
C. only the Layer 3 source address
D. only the Layer 3 destination address
E. the Layer 2 source and destination address
B. only the Layer 2 destination address
C. only the Layer 3 source address
D. only the Layer 3 destination address
E. the Layer 2 source and destination address
ANS: D
A. NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
B. FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
C. NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
D. FLASH, TFTP, ROM
B. FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
C. NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE
D. FLASH, TFTP, ROM
ANS: C
A
network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which
command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM? | CCNA
A. Router1# copy running-config flash
B. Router1(config)# copy running-config flash
C. Router1# copy running-config startup-config
D. Router1(config)# copy running-config startup-config
E. Router1# copy startup-config running-config
B. Router1(config)# copy running-config flash
C. Router1# copy running-config startup-config
D. Router1(config)# copy running-config startup-config
E. Router1# copy startup-config running-config
ANS: D
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
ANS: A,C
A. RAM
B. TFTP server
C. NVRAM
D. setup routine
E. Flash memory
B. TFTP server
C. NVRAM
D. setup routine
E. Flash memory
ANS: B,E
What
information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the
output of the show version command? | CCNA
A. the last restart method
B. the command buffer contents
C. the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
D. the configuration register settings
E. the location from where the IOS loaded
B. the command buffer contents
C. the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
D. the configuration register settings
E. the location from where the IOS loaded
ANS:
A,D,E
A. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet
to different destination networks.
B. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
C. Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
D. Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
E. If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load balancing.
B. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
C. Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
D. Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
E. If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load balancing.
ANS: C,D
The
network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their
FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use? | CCNA
A. straight-through
B. straight-through
C. cross-over
D. serial
B. straight-through
C. cross-over
D. serial
ANS: C
What
three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one
network that is destined for another network? | CCNA
A. decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer
2 frame header
B. uses the destination MAC Address in the IP Header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
C. leaves the Layer 2 frame header intact when decapsulating the Layer 3 packet
D. uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
E. encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface
B. uses the destination MAC Address in the IP Header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
C. leaves the Layer 2 frame header intact when decapsulating the Layer 3 packet
D. uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
E. encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface
ANS: A,D,E
What
is the outcome of entering these commands? R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123 R1(config-line)# login
A. ensures that a password is entered before entering user
EXEC mode
B. sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
C. requires check123 to be entered before the configuration can be saved
D. creates a local user account for logging in to a router or switch
B. sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
C. requires check123 to be entered before the configuration can be saved
D. creates a local user account for logging in to a router or switch
ANS: B
A. load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
B. load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
C. load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
D. check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS
B. load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
C. load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
D. check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS
ANS: A
A. source IP address: 192.168.10.129
B. source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
C. source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
D. destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
E. destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
B. source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
C. source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
D. destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
E. destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234
ANS: E
The
serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which
configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish
connectivity with the Melbourne site?
A. Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
B. Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
C. Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
D. Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
E. Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
B. Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
C. Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
D. Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
E. Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2
ANS:
A,B,D
Refer
to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the
running-configuration of a router? | CCNA
A. The passwords are encrypted.
B. The current configuration was saved to NVRAM.
C. The configuration that is shown will be the one used on the next reboot.
D. The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
B. The current configuration was saved to NVRAM.
C. The configuration that is shown will be the one used on the next reboot.
D. The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
ANS: D
Refer
to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network
that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these
routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network?
A. If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for
10.5.1.1, it will be forwarded out interface Fa0/0.
B. If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
C. If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
D. If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 172.20.255.1, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/0.
E. If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 192.16.5.101, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
B. If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
C. If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
D. If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 172.20.255.1, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/0.
E. If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for 192.16.5.101, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
ANS: B,C
A. packet switching
B. extension of network segm
C. segmentation of broadcast domains
D. selection of best path based on logical addressing
E. election of best path based on physical addressing
B. extension of network segm
C. segmentation of broadcast domains
D. selection of best path based on logical addressing
E. election of best path based on physical addressing
ANS:
A,C,D
Refer
to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is
unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem? | CCNA
A. The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
B. Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks
C. The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
D. The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
E. The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.
B. Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks
C. The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
D. The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
E. The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.
ANS: B
A. RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during
the boot sequence.
B. ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules
C. NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
D. Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
E. ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
B. ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules
C. NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
D. Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
E. ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.
ANS: B,D
Passwords
can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the
modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. | CCNA
A. VTY interface
B. console interface
C. Ethernet interface
D. secret EXEC mode
E. privileged EXEC mode
B. console interface
C. Ethernet interface
D. secret EXEC mode
E. privileged EXEC mode
ANS:
A,B,E
Refer
to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The
router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame? |
CCNA
A. The router will change the source and destination IP
address in the packet before forwarding the frame.
B. The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
C. The router will use the destination MAC address to determine which interface to forward the packet.
D. The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
E. The frame was received on the S0/0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the Fa0/0 interface.
B. The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
C. The router will use the destination MAC address to determine which interface to forward the packet.
D. The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
E. The frame was received on the S0/0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the Fa0/0 interface.
ANS: B,D
A. This router only has two interfaces.
B. The router interfaces are not operational yet.
C. This router is configured to forward packets to remote networks.
D. The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
E. An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface
B. The router interfaces are not operational yet.
C. This router is configured to forward packets to remote networks.
D. The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
E. An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface
ANS: D,E
Refer
to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the
interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from
the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router
interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem? | CCNA
A. The destination networks do not exist
B. The IP addresses on the router interfaces must be configured as network addresses and not host addresses.
C. The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
D. Each interface must be configured with the clock rate command.
B. The IP addresses on the router interfaces must be configured as network addresses and not host addresses.
C. The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
D. Each interface must be configured with the clock rate command.
ANS: C
A. The startup sequence will reset.
B. The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
C. The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
D. The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
E. The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements
B. The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
C. The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
D. The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
E. The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements
ANS: B
A. The router will only support classful IP addressing.
B. The router will only support classful routing protocols.
C. The router will use a default route, if present, when a matching route is not found in the routing table.
D. The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.
B. The router will only support classful routing protocols.
C. The router will use a default route, if present, when a matching route is not found in the routing table.
D. The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.
ANS: D
A
route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What
is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that
will be installed in the routing table? | CCNA
A. metric
B. route prefix
C. update timer
D. administrative distance
B. route prefix
C. update timer
D. administrative distance
ANS: D
Refer
to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the
JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches
the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next? | CCNA
A. searches for a default route to forward the packet
B. drops the packet since the static route does not have an exit interface
C. performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
D. sends a request to neighboring routers for the location of the 128.107.0.0 network
B. drops the packet since the static route does not have an exit interface
C. performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
D. sends a request to neighboring routers for the location of the 128.107.0.0 network
ANS: C
Refer
to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined
for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What
command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent
out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1? | CCNA
A. ip classless
B. no ip classless
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-gateway 172.16.254.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/1
B. no ip classless
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-gateway 172.16.254.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/1
ANS: A
Refer
to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the
172.16.0.0/24 network? | CCNA
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255
ANS: C
A
router has the following entries in its routing table: S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0]
via 192.168.128.2 O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15,
FastEthernet0/1 D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15,
Serial0/0/0 R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1 The
router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address
192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
A. the static route
B. the OSPF route
C. the EIGRP route
D. the RIP route
B. the OSPF route
C. the EIGRP route
D. the RIP route
ANS: D
Refer
to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the
routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1? | CCNA
A. 172.16.0.0/16
B. 172.16.0.0/24
C. 172.16.0.0/30
D. 172.16.1.0/16
E. 172.16.1.0/24
B. 172.16.0.0/24
C. 172.16.0.0/30
D. 172.16.1.0/16
E. 172.16.1.0/24
ANS: A
Refer
to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do
with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234? | CCNA
A. drop the packet
B. send packet out Serial 0/0/1
C. send packet to network 0.0.0.0
D. send packet out FastEthernet 0/0
B. send packet out Serial 0/0/1
C. send packet to network 0.0.0.0
D. send packet out FastEthernet 0/0
ANS: B
Refer
to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on
router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for
default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in
the routing table will be searched first and why?
A. 172.16.1.0/25 because it is the first ultimate route
B. 0.0.0.0/0 because it is the lowest network number
C. 172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route
D. 172.18.0.0/15 because it has the shortest mask
B. 0.0.0.0/0 because it is the lowest network number
C. 172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route
D. 172.18.0.0/15 because it has the shortest mask
ANS: C
Refer
to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network
administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of
172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped? | CCNA
A. issue the ip default-network command
B. use a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1
C. enable either OSPF or ISIS as the routing protocol
D. issue the ip classless command
E. do nothing, ip classless is on by default
B. use a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1
C. enable either OSPF or ISIS as the routing protocol
D. issue the ip classless command
E. do nothing, ip classless is on by default
ANS: E
A. The router will have to perform recursive lookups to
forward a packet destined for 192.168.2.213/24.
B. The parent route for these networks was removed from the routing table.
C. A route to 192.168.0.0/25 would be classified as a supernet route for the routes listed in the routing table.
D. All of the routes listed are network routes.
B. The parent route for these networks was removed from the routing table.
C. A route to 192.168.0.0/25 would be classified as a supernet route for the routes listed in the routing table.
D. All of the routes listed are network routes.
ANS: D
Refer
to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information
for the network 172.16.1.4? | CCNA
A. RIPv1
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
B. RIPv2
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
ANS: B
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
ANS: E
A. Child routes are present in the routing table.
B. A classless routing protocol has been configured on the router.
C. The command ip classless is enabled on the router.
D. Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
E. Routing table entries have a next-hop IP address and an exit interface for each child route.
B. A classless routing protocol has been configured on the router.
C. The command ip classless is enabled on the router.
D. Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
E. Routing table entries have a next-hop IP address and an exit interface for each child route.
ANS: C
The
following entry is displayed in the routing table: R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via
192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1 What type of route is this? | CCNA
A. a level 1 parent route
B. a level 1 supernet route
C. a level 1 ultimate network route
D. a level 2 child route
E. a level 2 ultimate child route
B. a level 1 supernet route
C. a level 1 ultimate network route
D. a level 2 child route
E. a level 2 ultimate child route
ANS: C
A. they are dropped
B. sent to default gateway
C. forward out interface Serial0/0/1
D. forward out interface FastEthernet 0/0
B. sent to default gateway
C. forward out interface Serial0/0/1
D. forward out interface FastEthernet 0/0
ANS: C
Refer
to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of
10.16.1.97. What will router B do? | CCNA
A. drop the packet
B. forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
C. forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
D. use the default route
B. forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
C. forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
D. use the default route
ANS: D
A
network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs
to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in
the routing table? | CCNA
A. the route with the smallest AD
B. the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
C. the route with the highest bandwidth
D. the route with the best combination of AD and lowest cost
B. the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
C. the route with the highest bandwidth
D. the route with the best combination of AD and lowest cost
ANS: B
A. RIPv1
B. RIPv2
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
E. OSP
B. RIPv2
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
E. OSP
ANS: C,D
Refer
to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from
router JAX to router ATL? | CCNA
A. hop count
B. uptime of the route
C. cost of the link
D. a list of all the routing protocols in use
B. uptime of the route
C. cost of the link
D. a list of all the routing protocols in use
ANS: C
A. updates triggered by network changes
B. updates sent at regular intervals
C. updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
D. updates that include complete routing tables
B. updates sent at regular intervals
C. updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
D. updates that include complete routing tables
ANS:
A
A. A and E
B. B and C
C. A, B, C, and E
D. C only
B. B and C
C. A, B, C, and E
D. C only
ANS: B
Which
algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path
to destination networks? | CCNA
A. DUAL
B. Dijkstra
C. Bellman-Ford
D. Diffie-Hellman
B. Dijkstra
C. Bellman-Ford
D. Diffie-Hellman
ANS: B
What
are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance
vector routing protocol? | CCNA
A. The topology database eliminates the need for a routing
table.
B. Each router independently determines the route to each network.
C. Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols
D. After the inital LSP flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a
topology.
E. Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological
database.
B. Each router independently determines the route to each network.
C. Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols
D. After the inital LSP flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a
topology.
E. Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological
database.
ANS: D
What
feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and
memory requirements? | CCNA
A. splitting routing topologies into smaller areas
B. assigning lower process priorities to route calculations
C. using update timers to restrict routing updates
D. strict split horizon rules to reduce routing table entries
B. assigning lower process priorities to route calculations
C. using update timers to restrict routing updates
D. strict split horizon rules to reduce routing table entries
ANS: A
A. successors are placed into the routing table
B. SPF computes best path to each destination network
C. LSPs are flooded to all neighbors to converge the network
D. DUAL algorithm is run to find best path to destination networks
B. SPF computes best path to each destination network
C. LSPs are flooded to all neighbors to converge the network
D. DUAL algorithm is run to find best path to destination networks
ANS: B
Which
database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in
order to construct an accurate SPF tree? | CCNA
A. routing table
B. adjacency table
C. link-state database
D. neighbor table
E. topology database
B. adjacency table
C. link-state database
D. neighbor table
E. topology database
ANS: C
A. sends out its updated routing table to both ORL and BOS
routers
B. sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS
C. queries BOS to see if it has a better route
D. only adds it to the local routing table and performs no other actions
B. sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS
C. queries BOS to see if it has a better route
D. only adds it to the local routing table and performs no other actions
ANS: B
What
action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a
neighboring router? | CCNA
A. floods the LSP to neighbors
B. calculates the SPF algorithm
C. runs the Bellman-Ford algorithm
D. computes the best path to the destination network
B. calculates the SPF algorithm
C. runs the Bellman-Ford algorithm
D. computes the best path to the destination network
ANS: A
A. 30 second timer expires
B. whenever the network topology changes
C. immediately after the Bellman-Ford algorithm has run
D. immediately after the DUAL FSM has built the topology database
E. upon initial startup of router or routing protocol
B. whenever the network topology changes
C. immediately after the Bellman-Ford algorithm has run
D. immediately after the DUAL FSM has built the topology database
E. upon initial startup of router or routing protocol
ANS: E
A. all routers in the area have link state databases
B. each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
C. LSPs use the reserved multicast address of 224.0.0.10 to reach neighbors
D. routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL).
E. Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP). is the protocol used by for the delivery and reception of LSPs
B. each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
C. LSPs use the reserved multicast address of 224.0.0.10 to reach neighbors
D. routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL).
E. Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP). is the protocol used by for the delivery and reception of LSPs
ANS: A
A. Each router builds a simple view of the network based on
hop count.
B. Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
C. Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
D. Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.
B. Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
C. Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
D. Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.
ANS: C
A. every 30 seconds
B. every 180 seconds
C. after the holddown time expires
D. when a link goes up or down
E. when a routing loop occurs
B. every 180 seconds
C. after the holddown time expires
D. when a link goes up or down
E. when a routing loop occurs
ANS: D
1. When
are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
2. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
3. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process?
4. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
5. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors?
6. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
7. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
8. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
9. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
10. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol?
11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
12. Which routers will router D receive hello packets?
13. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
14. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
15. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm?
16. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
17. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
19. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1 What type of route is this?
20. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
21. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
22. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
23. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
24. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
25. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
26. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
27. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
28. A router has the following entries in its routing table:S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58.Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
29. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
30. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
33. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
34. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
35. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
37. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit?
38. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame?
39. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords.
40. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router?
41. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
42. Which are functions of a router?
43. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network?
44. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site?
45. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
46. The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
47. What is the outcome of entering these commands?R1(config)# line vty 0 4R1(config-line)# password check123R1(config-line)# login
48. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
49. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network?
50. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
51. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing?
52. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command?
53. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection?
54. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process?
55. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
56. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
57. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
58. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
59. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
60. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
61. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
62. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
63. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
64. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
65. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true?
66. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information? append ?
67. Where is the startup configuration stored?
68. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?
69. To secure the console port with the password “cisco” to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access problem?
70. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords?
71. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown?
72. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch?
73. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks?
74. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security?
75. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
2. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
3. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process?
4. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
5. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors?
6. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
7. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
8. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
9. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
10. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol?
11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
12. Which routers will router D receive hello packets?
13. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
14. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
15. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm?
16. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
17. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
18. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
19. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1 What type of route is this?
20. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
21. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
22. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
23. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
24. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
25. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
26. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
27. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
28. A router has the following entries in its routing table:S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58.Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
29. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
30. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
33. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
34. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
35. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
37. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit?
38. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame?
39. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords.
40. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router?
41. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
42. Which are functions of a router?
43. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network?
44. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site?
45. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
46. The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.
47. What is the outcome of entering these commands?R1(config)# line vty 0 4R1(config-line)# password check123R1(config-line)# login
48. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
49. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network?
50. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
51. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing?
52. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command?
53. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection?
54. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process?
55. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
56. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
57. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
58. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
59. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
60. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
61. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
62. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
63. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
64. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
65. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true?
66. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information? append ?
67. Where is the startup configuration stored?
68. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?
69. To secure the console port with the password “cisco” to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access problem?
70. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords?
71. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown?
72. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch?
73. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks?
74. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security?
75. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
How
does Gargenta approach the problem of the app acting sluggishly due to network
latency? | Android
A. Starting over
B. Switching API levels
C. Refactoring code
D. Multithreading
B. Switching API levels
C. Refactoring code
D. Multithreading
Ans: D
A. Network latency
B. Hardware malfunctions
C. Virus on the Server
D. Activity manager contains too much.
B. Hardware malfunctions
C. Virus on the Server
D. Activity manager contains too much.
Ans: A
A. Intents
B. A content provider
C. Network receivers
D. Altering permissions
B. A content provider
C. Network receivers
D. Altering permissions
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: B
An
Android application is a loose collection of content providers, activities, broadcast
receivers, and services.
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. Preferences Activity
B. Update Activity
C. Timeline Activity
D. Status Activity
B. Update Activity
C. Timeline Activity
D. Status Activity
Ans: B
What
does the Gargenta mean in his Design Philosophy when he says that the project
will, "Always be whole and complete"?
A. He means that when we finish the entire project we will
have a working application, even though there will be points along the way when
we will stop and the application will not run.
B. He means that the program must always be able to compile.
C. He means that we will work on the program by adding self contained chunks to it so that at every stopping point the application runs as though it were a whole and complete application. Each additional chunk simply adds a new functionality to the application.
D. None of the above
B. He means that the program must always be able to compile.
C. He means that we will work on the program by adding self contained chunks to it so that at every stopping point the application runs as though it were a whole and complete application. Each additional chunk simply adds a new functionality to the application.
D. None of the above
Ans: C
The
android OS comes with many useful system services, which include processes you
can easily ask for things such as your.. | Android
A. All of these and more.
B. Location
C. Sensor Readings
D. WiFi? Hot Spots
B. Location
C. Sensor Readings
D. WiFi? Hot Spots
Ans: A
App
Widgets are can be place on the home screen by the user to check for updates
are available? | Android
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. Always whole and complete
B. Small increments
C. Lagre increments
D. Refactoring code
B. Small increments
C. Lagre increments
D. Refactoring code
Ans: C
A. Recompile the source code
B. It will update tweets periodically in the background
C. The services will pause the app
D. Configures the user interface
B. It will update tweets periodically in the background
C. The services will pause the app
D. Configures the user interface
Ans: B
A
good example app should demonstrate most of the aspects of the application
framework that are unique to Android. | Android
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. Java and SQL
B. XML and Java
C. XML and C++
D. Dreamweaver
B. XML and Java
C. XML and C++
D. Dreamweaver
Ans: B
A. SQLite
B. Apache
C. MySQL
D. Oracle
B. Apache
C. MySQL
D. Oracle
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
Broadcast
receivers are Android’s implementation of a system-wide publish/subscribe
mechanism, or more precisely, what design pattern? | Android
A. Observer
B. Facade
C. Mediator
D. Command
B. Facade
C. Mediator
D. Command
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: B
A. running state
B. Paused state
C. stopped state
D. destroyed state
B. Paused state
C. stopped state
D. destroyed state
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: B
A. are messages that are sent among major building blocks
B. trigger activities to being, services to start or stop, or broadcast
C. are asynchronous
D. all of these
B. trigger activities to being, services to start or stop, or broadcast
C. are asynchronous
D. all of these
Ans: D
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. Starting
B. Running
C. Destroyed
D. Paused
B. Running
C. Destroyed
D. Paused
Ans: D
A. Starting state
B. Running state
C. Loading state
D. Inexistent state.
B. Running state
C. Loading state
D. Inexistent state.
Ans: A
A. A single screen the user sees on the device at one time
B. A message sent among the major building blocks
C. A component that runs in the background without any interface.
D. Context referring to the application environment.
B. A message sent among the major building blocks
C. A component that runs in the background without any interface.
D. Context referring to the application environment.
Ans: A
A. Intents
B. Content Providers
C. Services
D. Applications
B. Content Providers
C. Services
D. Applications
Ans: C
A. Closing an app
B. Suspending an app
C. Opening a new app
D. Restoring the most recent app
B. Suspending an app
C. Opening a new app
D. Restoring the most recent app
Ans: C
A. stack.xml
B. text.xml
C. strings.xml
D. string.java
B. text.xml
C. strings.xml
D. string.java
Ans: C
A. Emulator included in Android SDK
B. Physical Android phone
C. Third-party Emulators (Youwave, etc.)
D. All three options will work.
B. Physical Android phone
C. Third-party Emulators (Youwave, etc.)
D. All three options will work.
Ans: D
What
file is responsible for glueing everthing together , explaining what the
applicatin consists of, what its main building blocks are, ext...?
A. Layout file
B. Strings XML
C. R file
D. Manifest file
B. Strings XML
C. R file
D. Manifest file
Ans: D
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
What
is the driving force behind an Android application and that ultimately gets
converted into a Dalvik executable? | Android
A. Java source code.
B. R-file.
C. the emulator.
D. the SDK
B. R-file.
C. the emulator.
D. the SDK
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. Layout file
B. Manifest file
C. Strings XML
D. R file
B. Manifest file
C. Strings XML
D. R file
Ans: A
A. Android Virtual Display
B. Android Virtual Device
C. Active Virtual Device
D. Application Virtual Display
B. Android Virtual Device
C. Active Virtual Device
D. Application Virtual Display
Ans: B
A. A Java project
B. A Java class
C. A method call
D. An object field
B. A Java class
C. A method call
D. An object field
Ans: B
A. Automatically
B. Manually
C. Emulated
D. None of the above
B. Manually
C. Emulated
D. None of the above
Ans: A
A. Emulators are only used to play old SNES games, simulators
are used for software development
B. The emulator is shipped with the Android SDK and third party simulators are not
C. The emulator can virtualize sensors and other hardware features, while the simulator cannot
D. The emulator imitates the machine executing the binary code, rather than simulating the behavior of the code at a higher level.
B. The emulator is shipped with the Android SDK and third party simulators are not
C. The emulator can virtualize sensors and other hardware features, while the simulator cannot
D. The emulator imitates the machine executing the binary code, rather than simulating the behavior of the code at a higher level.
Ans: D
A. Telephony
B. Applications
C. Sensors
D. The emulator can emulate/simulate all aspects of a smart phone.
B. Applications
C. Sensors
D. The emulator can emulate/simulate all aspects of a smart phone.
Ans: C
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: B
A. Runs the same code base as the actual device, all the way
down to the machine layer.
B. Is more of a simulator, and acts as a virtual machine for the Android device.
C. Runs the same code base as the actual device, however at a higher level.
D. An imaginary machine built on the hopes and dreams of baby elephants.
B. Is more of a simulator, and acts as a virtual machine for the Android device.
C. Runs the same code base as the actual device, however at a higher level.
D. An imaginary machine built on the hopes and dreams of baby elephants.
Ans: A
A. The permissions the app requires
B. The list of strings used in the app
C. The source code
D. All other choices
B. The list of strings used in the app
C. The source code
D. All other choices
Ans: A
A. Orientations and layouts that specify what the display
looks like.
B. The permissions required by the app.
C. The strings used in the app.
D. The code which is compiled to run the app.
B. The permissions required by the app.
C. The strings used in the app.
D. The code which is compiled to run the app.
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. Resources
B. All of these are components of the APK
C. Native Libraries
D. Dalvik executable
B. All of these are components of the APK
C. Native Libraries
D. Dalvik executable
Ans: B
A. After they are installed
B. Before they are installed
C. Never
D. Within two weeks of installation
B. Before they are installed
C. Never
D. Within two weeks of installation
Ans: B
What
was the main reason for replacing the Java VM with the Dalvik VM when the
project began? | Android
A. There was not enough memory capability
B. Java virtual machine was not free
C. Java VM was too complicated to configure
D. Java VM ran too slow
B. Java virtual machine was not free
C. Java VM was too complicated to configure
D. Java VM ran too slow
Ans: B
A. Android Interpretive Compiler (AIC)
B. Dalvik Converter
C. Dex compiler
D. Mobile Interpretive Compiler (MIC)
B. Dalvik Converter
C. Dex compiler
D. Mobile Interpretive Compiler (MIC)
Ans: C
A. Dalvik Executable
B. Resources
C. Native Libraries
D. Webkit
B. Resources
C. Native Libraries
D. Webkit
Ans: D
When
you distribute your application commercially,you'll want to sign it with your
own key. | Android
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: A
A. Every new app is scanned by a virus scanner
B. Users report malicious software to Google
C. Google employees verify each new app
D. A seperate company monitors the Android Market for Google
B. Users report malicious software to Google
C. Google employees verify each new app
D. A seperate company monitors the Android Market for Google
Ans: B
A. Application Package
B. Application Program Kit
C. Android Proprietary Kit
D. Android Package
B. Application Program Kit
C. Android Proprietary Kit
D. Android Package
Ans: A
What
is a key difference with the distribution of apps for Android based devices
than other mobile device platform applications? | Android
A. Applications are distributed by Apple App Store
only
B. Applications are distributed by multiple vendors with different policies on applications.
C. Applications are distributed by multiple vendors with the exact same policies on applications.
D. Applications are distributed by the Android Market only.
B. Applications are distributed by multiple vendors with different policies on applications.
C. Applications are distributed by multiple vendors with the exact same policies on applications.
D. Applications are distributed by the Android Market only.
Ans: B
A. Java source code
B. Dalvik application code
C. Dalvik byte code
D. C source code
B. Dalvik application code
C. Dalvik byte code
D. C source code
Ans: C
A. 2003
B. 2005
C. 2007
D. 2006
B. 2005
C. 2007
D. 2006
Ans: B
A. Linux
B. Windows
C. Java
D. XML
B. Windows
C. Java
D. XML
Ans: A
A. Security
B. Portability
C. Networking
D. All of these
B. Portability
C. Networking
D. All of these
Ans: D
A. True
B. False
B. False
Ans: B
A. Webkit
B. Dalvik
C. OpenGL
D. SQLite
B. Dalvik
C. OpenGL
D. SQLite
Ans: B
A. Keypad driver
B. WiFi? driver
C. Audio driver
D. Power management
B. WiFi? driver
C. Audio driver
D. Power management
Ans: B
A. 1.1
B. 1.5
C. 2.3
D. 3.4
B. 1.5
C. 2.3
D. 3.4
Ans: B
A. The first phones were released with version 1.5
B. 1.0 and 1.1 had security holes that forced carriers to recall phones using them
C. 1.0 and 1.1 are just number designations for the version Apple's iPhone is running
D. Everyone with 1.0 and 1.1 were upgraded to 1.5 over the air automatically
B. 1.0 and 1.1 had security holes that forced carriers to recall phones using them
C. 1.0 and 1.1 are just number designations for the version Apple's iPhone is running
D. Everyone with 1.0 and 1.1 were upgraded to 1.5 over the air automatically
Ans: D
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. cupcake
B. Gingerbread
C. Honeycomb
D. Muffin
Ans: D
A. 2007
B. 2005
C. 2008
D. 2010
Ans: B
A. Adjective and strange animal
B. Food
C. Something that starts w/ 'A' -> Something that starts w/ 'B'...
D. American states
Ans: B
A. low-level Linux modules
B. all of these answers #The entire stack is an open source platform
C. native libraries
D. application frame work
E. complete applications
Ans: B
Android
tries hard to _____low-level components, such as the software stack, with
interfaces so that vendor-specific code can be managed easily.
A. confound
B. absract
C. modularize
D. compound
Ans: B
A. True
B. False
Ans: A
A. True
B. False
Ans: B
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